Aristotle On Interpretation, Commentary by St. Thomas and Cajetan

 CONTENTS

 FOREWORD

 PREFACE

 BOOK I

 Introduction

 LESSON I

 LESSON II

 LESSON III

 LESSON IV

 LESSON V

 LESSON VI

 LESSON VII

 LESSON VIII

 LESSON IX

 LESSON X

 LESSON XI

 LESSON XII

 LESSON XIII

 LESSON XIV

 LESSON XV

 BOOK II

 LESSON I

 LESSON II

 LESSON III

 LESSON IV

 LESSON V

 LESSON VI

 LESSON VII

 LESSON VIII

 LESSON IX

 LESSON X

 LESSON XI

 LESSON XII

 LESSON XIII

 LESSON XIV

LESSON IV

Some Doubts About What Has Been Said Are Presented and Solved

             20a 16 Since the negation contrary to "Every animal is just," is the one signifying "No animal is just," it is evident that these will never be at once true, or in reference to the same thing, but the opposites of these will sometimes be true, i.e., "Not every animal is just" and "Some animal is just."

             20a 20 Now the enunciation "No man is just" follows upon the enunciation "Every man is nonjust"; and "Not every man is nonjust," which is its opposite, follows upon "Some man is just," for its opposite [i.e. the opposite of "every man"] must be "some man."

             20a 23 And it is also clear with respect to the singular that if a question is asked and a negative answer is the true one, there is also a true affirmation. Take the example, "Is Socrates wise?" and the answer, "No"; then, "Socrates is nonwise." But in the case of universals, the affirmative inference is not true, but the negation is true. For example, in the question, "Is every man wise?" and the true answer, "No," the inference "Then every man is nonwise" is clearly false, but "Not every man is wise" is true. The latter is the opposite, the former the contrary.

             20a 31 The antitheses in infinite names and verbs, as in "non-man" and "nonjust," might seem to be negations without a name or a verb; they are not, however. For the negation must always be either true or false; but the person who says "non-man" says nothing more than one who says "man," and he is even further from saying something true or false if something is not added.

             20a 37 Moreover, "Every non-man is just" does not signify the same thing as any of the other enunciations, nor does the opposite of this, "Not every non-man is just."

             20a 39 But "Every non-man is nonjust" signifies the same thing as "No nonman is just."

             20b 1 When the names and verbs are transposed, the enunciations signify the same thing; for example, "Man is white" and "White is man."

             20b 3 For if this is not the case there will be more than one negation of the same enunciation; but it has been shown that there is only one negation of one affirmation, for the negation of "Man is white" is "Man is not white," and if "White is man" is not the same as "Man is white," the negation of it ["White is man"] will be "White is not non-man" and "White is not man." The former, however, is the negation of "White is non-man"; the latter of "Man is white." Therefore, there will be two [negations] of one [affirmation]. It is clear, therefore, that when the name and the verb are transposed the signification of the affirmation and negation is the same.

             1. Having treated the diversity of enunciations Aristotle now answers certain questions about them. He takes up six points related to the number of difficulties. These will become evident as we come to them.

             Since he has said that in universal enunciations the diagonals in one case cannot be at once true but can be in another, for the diagonal affirmatives cannot be at once true but the negatives can, someone might raise a question as to the cause of this diversity. Therefore, it is his intention now to assign the cause of this: namely, that the diagonal affirmatives are contrary to each other, and contraries cannot be at once true in any matter; but the diagonal negatives are subcontraries opposed to these and can be at once true.

             In relation to this he first states the conditions for contraries and subcontraries. Then he shows that diagonal affirmatives are contraries and that diagonal negatives are subcontraries where he says, Now the enunciation "No man is just" follows upon the enunciation "Every man is nonjust," etc.

             By way of resumé, therefore, he says that in the first book it was said that the negative enunciation contrary to the universal affirmative "Every animal is just" is "No animal is just." It is evident that these cannot be at once true, i.e., at the same time, nor of the same thing, i.e., of the same subject. But the opposites of these, i.e., the subcontraries, can sometimes be at once true, i.e., in contingent matter, as in "Some animal is just" and "Not every animal is just."

             2. When he says, Now the enunciation, "No man is just" follows upon the enunciation "Every man is nonjust," etc., he shows that the diagonal affirmatives previously posited are contraries, the negatives subcontraries. First he manifests this from the fact that the infinite universal affirmative and the simple universal negative are equal in meaning, and consequently each of them is contrary to the simple universal affirmative, which is the other diagonal. Hence, he says that the infinite universal affirmative "Every man is nonjust" follows upon the finite universal negative "No man is just," equivalently.

             Secondly he shows this from the fact that the finite particular affirmative and the infinite particular negative are equal in meaning, and consequently each of these is subcontrary to the simple particular negative, which is the other diagonal. This you can see in the previous diagram. He says, then, that the opposite "Not every man is nonjust" follows upon the finite particular "Some man is just" equivalently (understand "the opposite" not of this particular but of the infinite universal affirmative, for this is its contradictory).

             In order to see clearly how these enunciations are equivalent, make a four-sided figure, putting the finite universal negative in one corner and under it the contradictory, the finite particular affirmative. On the other side, put the infinite universal affirmative and under it the contradictory, the infinite particular negative. Now indicate the contradiction between diagonals and the contradiction between collaterals.

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Diagram #9 (Image 9)]]

             This arrangement makes the mutual consequence of the universals in truth and falsity evident, for if one of them is true, its diagonal contradictory is false; and if this is false, its collateral contradictory, which is the other universal, will be true. With respect to the falsity of the particulars the procedure is the same. Their mutual consequence is made evident in the same way, for if one of them is true, its diagonal contradictory is false, and if this is false, its contradictory collateral, which is the other particular, will be true; the procedure is the same with respect to falsity.

             3. However, a question arises with respect to this. At the end of I Priorum, Aristotle determines from what he has proposed that the judgment of the universal negative and the infinite universal affirmative is not the same. Furthermore, in the second book of the present work, in relation to the phrase Of which two are related according to consequence, two are not. Ammonius, Porphyry, Boethius, and St. Thomas say that the simple negative follows upon the infinite affirmative and not conversely.

             Albert answers this latter difficulty by pointing out that the infinite affirmative follows upon the finite negative when the subject is constant, but the simple negative follows upon the affirmative absolutely. Hence both positions are verified, for with a constant subject there is a mutual consequence between them, but there is not a mutual consequence between them absolutely.

             We could also answer this difficulty in this way. In Book II, Lesson II we were speaking of the infinite enunciation with the whole of what it signified reduced to the form of the predicate, and according to this there was not a mutual consequence, since the finite negative is superior to the infinite affirmative. But here we are speaking of the infinite itself formally taken. Hence St. Thomas, when he introduced the exposition of Ammonius in his commentary on the above passage, said that according to this mode of speaking the simple negative is wider than the infinite affirmative.

             In the above mentioned text in I Priorum, Aristotle is speaking of finite and infinite enunciations in relation to the syllogism. It is evident, however, that the universal affirmative, whether finite or infinite is only inferred in the first mode of the first figure, while any universal negative whatever is inferred in the second mode of the first figure and in the first and second modes of the second figure.

             4. When he says, And it is also clear with respect to the singular that if a question is asked and a negative answer is the true one, there is also a true affirmation, etc., he presents a difficulty relating to the varying position of the negation, i.e., whether there is a difference as to truth and falsity when the negation is a part of the predicate or a part of the verb. This difficulty arises from what he has just said, namely, that it is of no consequence as to truth or falsity whether you say, "Every man is nonjust" or "Every man is not just"; yet in one case the negation is a part of the predicate, in the other part of the copula, and this makes a great deal of difference with respect to affirmation and negation.

             To solve this problem Aristotle makes a distinction: in singular enunciations, the singular negation and infinite affirmation of the same subject are of the same truth, but in universals this is not so. For if the negation of the universal is true it is not necessary that the infinite affirmation of the universal is true. The negation of the universal is the contradictory particular, but if it is true [i.e., the contradictory particular] it is not necessary that the subaltern, which is the contrary of the contradictory, be true, for two contraries can be at once false. Hence he says that in singular enunciations it is evident that if it is true to deny the thing asked, i.e., if the negation of a singular enunciation, which has been made into an interrogation, is true, there will also be a true affirmation, i.e., the infinite affirmation of the same singular will be true. For example, if the question "Do you think Socrates is wise?" has "No" as a true response, then "Socrates is nonwise," i.e., the infinite affirmation "Socrates is nonwise" will be true.

             But in the case of universals the affirmative inference is not true, i.e., from the truth of a negation to a universal affirmative question, the truth of the infinite universal affirmative (which is similar in quantity and quality to the enunciation asked) does not follow. But the negation is true, i.e., from the truth of the negative response it follows that its negation is true, i.e., the negation of the universal asked, which is the particular negative. Consider, for example, the question "Do you think every man is wise?" If the response "No" is true, one would be tempted to infer the affirmative similar to the question asked, i.e., then "Every man is nonwise." This, however, does not follow from the negation, for this is false as it follows from that response. Rather, what must be inferred is "Then not every man is wise." And the reason for both is that the particular enunciation inferred last is the opposite, i.e., the contradictory of the universal question, which, being falsified by the negative response, makes the contradictory of the universal affirmative true, for of contradictories, if one is false the other is true.

             The infinite universal affirmative first inferred, however, is contrary to the same universal question. Should it not also be true? No, because it is not necessary in the case of universals that if one is false the other is true.

             The cause of the diversity between singulars and universals is now clear. In singulars the varying position of the negation does not vary the quantity of the enunciation, but in universals it does. Therefore there is not the same truth in enunciations denying a universal when in one the negation is a part of the predicate and in the other a part of the verb.

             5. Then he says, The antitheses in infinite names and verbs, as in "non-man" and "nonjust," might seem to be negations without a name or a verb, etc. Here he raises the third difficulty, i.e., whether infinite names or verbs are negations. This question arises from his having said that the negative and infinite are equivalent and from having just said that in singular enunciations it makes no difference whether the negative is a part of the predicate or a part of the verb. For if the infinite name is a negation, then the enunciation having an infinite subject or predicate will be negative and not affirmative.

             He resolves this question by an interpretation which proves that neither infinite names nor verbs are negations although they seem to be. First he proposes the solution saying, The antitheses in infinite names and verbs, i.e., words contraposed, e.g., "non-man," and "nonjust man" and "just man"; or this may be read as, Those (namely, words) corresponding to infinites, i.e., corresponding to the nature of infinites, placed in opposition to names or verbs (namely, removing what the names and verbs signify, as in "non-man," "nonjust," and "nonruns," which are opposed to "man," "just" and "runs"), would seem at first sight to be quasi-negations without name and verb, because, as related to the names and verbs before which they are placed, they remove them; they are not truly negations however. He says without a name or a verb because the infinite name lacks the nature of a name and the infinite verb does not have the nature of a verb. He says quasi because the infinite name does not fall short of the notion of the name in every way, nor the infinite verb of the nature of the verb. Hence, if it is thought that they are negations, they will be regarded as without a name or a verb, not in every way but as though they were without a name or a verb.

             He proves that infinitizing signs of separation are not negations by pointing out that it is always necessary for the negation to be true or false since a negation is an enunciation of something separated from something. The infinite name, however, does not assert what is true or false. Therefore the infinite word is not a negation. He manifests the minor when he says that the one who says "non-man" says nothing more of man than the one who says "man." Clearly this is so with respect to what is signified, for "non-man" adds nothing beyond "man"; rather, it removes "man." Moreover, with respect to a conception of truth or falsity, it is of no more use to say "non-man" than to say "man" if something else is not added; rather, it is less true or false, i.e., one who says "non-man" is more removed from truth and falsity than one who says "man," for both truth and falsity depend on composition, and the finite word which posits something is closer to composition than the infinite word, which neither posits nor composes, i.e., it implies neither positing nor composition.

             6. When he says, Moreover, "Every non-man is just" does not signify the same thing as any of the other enunciations, etc., he answers a fourth difficulty, i.e., how the earlier statement concerning enunciations having an infinite subject is to be understood. The statement was that these stand by themselves and are distinct from the former [in consequence of using the name "non-man"]. This is to be understood not just with respect to the enunciations themselves formally, but with respect to the consequence of what is signified. Hence, giving two examples of enunciations with an infinite subject, the universal affirmative and universal negative, he says that neither of these signifies the same thing as any of those, namely of those having a finite subject. The universal affirmative "Every non-man is just" does not signify the same thing as any of the enunciations with a finite subject; for it does not signify "Every man is just" nor "Every man is nonjust." Nor do the opposite negation, or the universal negative having an infinite subject which is contrarily opposed to the universal affirmative, signify the same thing as enunciations with a finite subject; i.e., "Not every non-man is just" and "No non-man is just," do not signify the same thing as any of those with a finite subject. This is evident from the diversity of subject in the latter and the former.

             7. When he says, But "Every non-man is nonjust" signifies the same thing as "No non-man is just," he answers a fifth difficulty, i.e., is there a consequence among enunciations with an infinite subject? This question arises from the fact that consequences were assigned among them earlier. He says, therefore, that there is a consequence even among these, for the universal affirmative with an infinite subject and predicate and the universal negative with an infinite subject but a finite predicate are equivalent, i.e., "Every non-man is nonjust" signifies the same thing as "No non-man is just." This is also the case in particular infinites and singulars which are similar to the foresaid, for no matter what their quantity, the affirmative with both extremes infinite and the negative with an infinite subject and a finite predicate are always equivalent, as may be easily seen by examples. Hence, Aristotle in giving the universals intends the others to be understood from these.

             8. When he says, When the names and verbs are transposed, the enunciations signify the same thing, etc., he resolves a sixth difficulty: whether the signification of the enunciation is varied because of the transposition of names or verbs. This question arises from his having shown that the transposition of the negation varies the signification of the enunciation. "Every man is nonjust," he said, does not signify the same thing as "Not every man is just." This raises the question as to whether a similar thing happens when we transpose names. Would this vary the enunciation as the transposed negation does?

             First he states the solution, saying that transposed names and verbs signify the same thing, e.g., "Man is white" signifies the same thing as "White is man." Transposed verbs also signify the same thing, as in "Man is white" and "Man white is."

             9. Then he proves the solution from the number of contradictory negations when he says, For if this is not the case there will be more than one negation of the same enunciation, etc. He does this by a reduction to the impossible and his reasoning is as follows. If this is not so, i.e., if transposed names diversify enunciations, there will be two negations of the same affirmation. But in the first book it was shown that there is only one negation of one affirmation. Going, then, from the destruction of the consequent to the destruction of the antecedent, transposed names do not vary the enunciation.

             To clarify the proof of the consequent, make a figure in which both of the affirmations posited above, with the names transposed are located on one side. Put the two negatives similar to them in respect to terms and position on the opposite side. Then leaving a little space, under the affirmatives put the affirmation with an infinite subject and under the negatives the negation of it. Mark the contradiction between the first affirmation and the first two negations and between the second affirmation and all three negations, but in the latter case mark the contradiction between it and the lowest negation as not true but imaginary. Mark, also, the contradiction between the third affirmation and negation.

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Diagram #10 (Image 10)]]

             Now we can see how Aristotle proves the consequent. The negation of the affirmation "Man is white" is "Man is not white." But if the second affirmation, "White is man," is not the same as "Man is white," because of the transposition of the names, its negation, [i.e., of "White is man"] will be either of these two: "Non-man is not white," or "White is not man." But each of these has another opposed affirmation than that assigned, namely, than "White is man." For one of the negations, namely, "Non-man is not white," is the negation of "Non-man is white"; the other, "White is not man" is the negation of the affirmation "Man is white," which was the first affirmation. Therefore whatever negation is given as contradictory to the middle enunciation, it follows that there are two of one, i.e., two affirmations of one negation, and two negations of one affirmation, which is impossible. And this, as has been said, follows upon an erroneously set up hypothesis, i.e., that these affirmations are diverse because of the transposition of names.

             10. Notice first that Aristotle through these two negations, "Nonman is not white" and "White is not man," taken under disjunction to find the negation of the affirmation "Man is white," has comprehended other things. It is as though he said: The negation which will be taken will either be the true negation of such an affirmation or some extraneous negation; and whichever is taken, it always follows, given the hypothesis, that there are many negations of one affirmation--one which is the contradictory of it, having equal truth with the one having its name transposed, and the other which you accept as distinct, or you imagine falsely. And conversely, there is a single negation of many affirmations, as is clear in the diagram. Hence, from whichever of these four you begin, you see two opposed to it. It is significant, therefore, that Aristotle concludes indeterminately: Therefore, there will be two [negations] of one [affirmation].

             11. Note secondly that Aristotle does not consider it important to prove that the contradictory of the first affirmation is the contradictory of the second, and similarly that the contradictory of the second affirmation is the contradictory of the first. This he accepts as self-evident since they can neither be true at the same time nor false at the same time. This is manifestly clear when a singular term is placed first, for "Socrates is a white man" and "Socrates is not a white man" cannot be maintained at the same time in any mode. You should not be disturbed by the fact that he does not propose these singulars here, for he was undoubtedly aware that he had already stated in the first book which affirmation and negation are contradictories and which not and for this reason felt that a careful elaboration of the examples was not necessary here.

             It is therefore evident that since negations of affirmations with transposed names are not diverse the affirmations themselves are not diverse, and hence transposed names and verbs signify the same thing.

             12. A doubt does arise, however, about the point Aristotle is making here, for it does not seem true that with transposed names the affirmation is the same. This, for example, is not valid: "Every man is an animal"; therefore, "Every animal is a man." Nor is the following example with a transposed verb valid: "Man is a rational animal and (taking "is" as the second element), therefore "Man animal rational is"; for although it is nugatory as a whole combination, nevertheless it does not follow upon the first.

             The answer to this is as follows. Just as there is a twofold transmutation in natural things, i.e., local, from place to place, and formal, from form to form, so in enunciations there is a twofold transmutation: a positional transmutation when a term placed before is placed after, and conversely, and a formal transmutation when a term that was a predicate is made a subject, and conversely, or in whatever mode, simply, etc. And just as in natural things sometimes a purely local transmutation is made (for instance, when a thing is transferred from place to place, with no other variation made) and sometimes a transmutation is made according to place--not simply but with a formal variation--(as when a thing passes from a cold place to a hot place), so in enunciations a transmutation is sometimes made which is purely positional, i.e., when the name and verb are varied only in vocal position, and sometimes a transmutation is made which is at once formal and positional, as when the predicate becomes the subject, or the verb which is the third element added becomes the second.

             Aristotle's purpose here was to treat of the purely positional transmutation of names and verbs, as the vocabulary of the transposition indicates; when he says, then, that transposed names and verbs signify the same thing, he intends to imply that if nothing other than the transposition of name and verb takes place in the enunciation, what is said remains the same. Hence, the response to the present objection is clear, for in both examples there is not only a transposition but a transmutation--of subject to predicate in one case, and from an enunciation with a third element to one with a second element in the other. The response to similar questions is evident from this.